Weeks 4-6
Please use the comments section to answer questions. Do not try to answer all questions. Try to keep up an average of one per week, with time for a few comments on the ideas of others.
2. The Wife of Bath's Tale is considered by some critics to indicate that Chaucer may have been a feminist. Why might they believe this? Do you agree? Remember to cite evidence from the text or some other source.
3.Hahn's essay (see critical reader)on The Wedding of Sir Gawain and Dame Ragnelleidentifies the motif of the loathly lady, but arguesit has a different purpose than asserting the feminine. What does he think the function of the story is?
4. In the context of Elizabethan and Jacobean sonnets, how can we define "conceits"?
5. Discuss what you think is the most striking or outrageous example.
6. What does Revard (1997) suggest about the relationship between language, sex, power and transgression in the English Renaissance?
1. Cite some variations in the Loathly Lady fabula across the three tales in your Reader. Focus on the conditions by which the lady is either beautiful or ugly, and the actions of the knight/king/"hero"...
ReplyDeleteAcross the three tales in the Loathly Lady Fabula the aspect of an ugly woman is consistent along with the description of "the ugliest creature a man has ever seen". In all three texts the woman were compared to animals rather than a human being. Ultimately the knights/heroes/king married an ugly woman against their will or in the case of Sir Gawain which was not of his true desire. However it is apparent that the underlying motives of marriage for the ugly women were somewhat a test of nobility and courteousness. The classic princess and the frog storyline – kissing an ugly frog who then turns into a handsome prince. Upon marriage each knight/hero/king was tested and of course passed being rewarded by having their ugly wives transformed into fair ladies. The mood is then changed from sorrowful, disgusted and resentful men to proud and happy husbands.
Acknowledgement: the text of the interlinear translation is derived from Harvard University online: retrieved from http://www.courses.fas.harvard.edu/~chaucer/index.html 01.01.06
Extract: Hahn, T. (Ed.). (1995). The Wedding of Sir Gawain and Dame Ragnelle.In Sir Gawain: Eleven Romances and Tales. Kalamazoo, Michigan: Medieval Institute Publications
Steeleye Span, from Below the Salt, 1972. Retrieved from https://autonline.aut.ac.nz/bbcswebdav/pid-3647933-dt-content-rid-6652318_4/institution/Papers/ENGL600/Publish/Desire_Critical%20Reader_2014.pdf
Good answer. To the point.But you needed to mention each of the three tales in turn, and show variations.
Delete2. The Wife of Bath’s Tale is considered by some critics to indicate that Chaucer may have been a feminist. Why might they believe this? Do you agree? Remember to cite evidence from the text or some other source.
ReplyDeleteI agree that Chaucer might be a feminist. Feminist is a person who supports gender equality. Still these days, we are struggling to advocate women’s right. That’s why the word ‘feminist’ was made.
The time that The Wife of Bath’s Tale was written is 1393~1400. In 1390s, a strong masculism and solemn religious atmosphere governed the society. But what Chaucer wants to say is women don’t always have to obey men. Women is also the innate independent human. They already have the right to participate in politics and economy. There is no sexual discrimination in this story. I was really amazed that is it really written in 1390s? Women were described as the wisest creature in the world. Women always know everything that men don’t know. In the text line 896, “Until he granted hi his life right there, And gave him to the queen, all at her will, To choose whether she would him save or put to death.” It shows that it is natural for queen(woman) to participate in course of law. She also has the power to judge the knight. Practically speaking, it can’t happen that time. As consider the time setting, any women have the right to participate in fields of economy or politics. No one thought women are the symbol of wisdom and noble existence in that time. But they can do it all of impossible things in Chaucer’s stories.
In the text line1038, there is a theme that Chaucer want to share with us. “Women desire to have sovereignty As well over her husband as her love, And to be in mastery above him.” Authors often write the impossible things that can be possible in novels. Because he knows that it is just his wish, but he wants to give readers a chance to think the different way he would thought. This stories must be controversial and bring a huge impact to people. Against the ordinary belief and cast away a prejudice are really difficult. Nevertheless, Chaucer did it. In that point, he is a real feminist trying to strengthen women’s right.
A strong point of view here, well expressed. The opposing argument is that Chaucer is mocking women' aspirations, inviting men to laugh at them.
ReplyDelete2. The Wife of Bath's Tale is considered by some critics to indicate that Chaucer may have been a feminist. Why might they believe this? Do you agree? Remember to cite evidence from the text or some other source.
ReplyDeleteThe term ‘feminism’ was said to have been coined by Charles Fourier, a French philosopher, in 1837 taken directly from the word “féminisme" (Feminism , n.d.). Thus in order to consider that Chaucer had feminist intentions would be inaccurate as the concept had not yet been devised, in large part due to the class status of women during the middle ages/the Renaissance period in which he wrote ‘The Wife of Bath’s Tale’. However it is apparent through this tale that there is an underlying pro-female tone, through the power, if frequently malicious, the old woman has over the man. The loathly lady inadvertently puts value into the female character which was previously determined by the man through asserting her power and manipulated dominance. I see that a prime example of this is the challenge put to the King’s knight. Justice is due to be served against the knight. He now, simply, has to consider what a woman wants, after he fulfilled his desires at the expense of a woman. The answer, in juxtaposition to what the knight most desired, was a plea from women that was already commonly enjoyed by the man; to have sovereignty and control over her husband, “"Wommen desiren to have sovereynetee As wel over hir housbond as hir love, And for to been in maistrie hym above.” (Chaucer) The lady is used as a device to demonstrate the concept of sovereignty, specifically a woman’s sovereignty over a man.
A particularly interesting point made by Vladislava Vaněčková of Masaryk University, is that through The Canterbury Tales there is a set role for the woman be that as a nun or otherwise, with the exemption of the tales voiced by a female narrator, an example of this being ‘The Wife of Bath’s Tale’. These particular female orientated tales voice the concerns of woman in medieval society, from their status position determined by tradition to the individual aspirations of the woman. (Vladislava Vaněčková, 2007) So it could easily be considered that the intentions of Chaucer to have a selection of tales voiced by a woman narrator was to give the female perspective platform. By today’s standards, considering the social constructs of the time, Chaucer could easily be considered to have feminist intentions.
Hello Megan!
DeleteThis is a really good post.
I really like some points that you made. Especially, what Vladislava Vaněčková said. "Female orientated tales voice expressed the individual aspirations of the woman."
According to Shmoop University (2016) women are powerless in the middle ages/ Renaissance period. Nevertheless, women are described as the most important existences in this story. As showing the wise women, Chaucer offers readers a chance to imagine women who are in upper hierarchy. I really agree with that Chaucer has woman perspective with aspirations what Middle ages women had.
I agree with Faye Shin. This is an excellent post, with some solid research behind it.
Delete